I have a question about using Hosea 6:2 as an exception to the “young earth” debate. When looking at the full context of this verse (just looking at Hosea 6:1-3), it is speaking about Israel being brought back to God after it’s being unrepentant. If we don’t take this verse as literal, how can we take Christ’s death and resurrection (3 days in the grave) as literal? Aren’t these verses a foreshadowing of Christ’s death and resurrection??
I’m not as good of a Berean as I should be, because I don’t know how many times in the bible God is giving figurative timeframes. But I do know, that of the prophecies I’ve studied so far, all the timeframes/days mentioned have been literal.
I’m not so sure. At least I’m not at the point of being convinced yet. Hosea 2:16 (and it’s significant that this is the same book) says, “‘It will come about in that day,’ declares the LORD, ‘That you will call Me Ishi And will no longer call Me Baali'” (see vv.17-23 as well). What day is that? It’s a time that is coming which is described in the preceding verses. It seems to me that this is not a literal, 24-hour day, but seems to be a period of time to come in the future (so this is a prophecy as well).
Hosea 5:9, another prophecy, speaks of a coming day of rebuke for Ephraim. Again, I wouldn’t be so sure that this is a literal, 24-hour day.
Outside of Hosea, Joel speaks of a coming “day of the LORD” (cf. 1:15; 2:1), a “day of darkness and gloom” (2:2), etc. I don’t think that either of these prophecies are intended to be interpreted as literal, 24-hour days.
Just doing a study of the word “day” in Zechariah seems to make it pretty clear that “day” can refer to a future period of time when used in prophecy.
In conclusion, I would have to completely disagree with the notion that any time the word “day” appears in prophecy, it speaks of a literal, 24-hour day.
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